Introduction
In recent years, the nature of sports-related questions in the Civil Services Examination has undergone a paradigm shift. No longer restricted to mere scores or winners, the Commission now tests candidates on administrative frameworks, sports legislation, and international ethics. To help you navigate this transition, we have curated a comprehensive set of Sports Current Affairs MCQs UPSC 2026.
This question bank is specifically designed to reflect the “analytical and twisted” nature of the Prelims, covering high-yield events from July 2025 to May 2026. Whether it is the governance of WADA, the new Draft Sports Bill, or the geopolitical significance of host cities, these Sports Current Affairs MCQs UPSC 2026 will ensure you stay ahead of the curve.
Section 1: International Governance & Sports Current Affairs MCQs UPSC 2026
1. With reference to the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) and the updated 2025-26 World Anti-Doping Code, consider the following statements:
WADA is a specialized agency of the United Nations, similar to the WHO, dedicated to sports integrity.
The “Prohibited List” is updated annually, but a substance can be added mid-year if it meets two out of three criteria (performance enhancement, health risk, or violation of the spirit of sport).
The 2026 update introduces stricter “therapeutic use exemptions” (TUE) for mental health-related medications.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
2. The “Court of Arbitration for Sport” (CAS), which handled several high-profile appeals in late 2025, is often referred to as the “Supreme Court of Sports.” Consider the following:
CAS is an independent institution that provides services to facilitate the settlement of sport-related disputes through arbitration or mediation.
Its decisions have the same enforceability as judgments of ordinary courts in the country where the arbitration takes place.
The Swiss Federal Tribunal is the only body that can hear an appeal against a CAS award, but only on very limited procedural grounds.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
3. In late 2025, several International Federations (IFs) debated the “Neutral Athlete” status. In the context of the Olympic Charter, “Neutrality” implies:
(a) The athlete competes under the flag of the United Nations.
(b) The athlete is funded by the IOC but represents their home National Olympic Committee (NOC).
(c) The athlete competes without any national symbols, and their achievements are not credited to a national medal tally.
(d) The athlete must have sought political asylum in a third-party country to be eligible.
4. Consider the following statements regarding the “Macolin Convention” (Council of Europe Convention on the Manipulation of Sports Competitions), which saw increased Indian engagement in 2025:
It is the only rule of international law on the manipulation of sports competitions.
It requires governments to adopt measures, including legislation, to prevent, detect, and punish match-fixing.
India became a permanent signatory to this convention in early 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
5. With reference to the governance of the International Olympic Committee (IOC), consider the following statements:
The IOC is a non-profit independent international non-governmental organization.
The Olympic Agenda 2020+5 mandates that all future host cities must achieve a “Carbon Positive” status rather than just “Carbon Neutral.”
The President of the IOC is elected by a secret ballot for an initial term of eight years, renewable once for four years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
6. The “Bosman Ruling,” which was revisited in 2025 European legal challenges regarding transfer fees, primarily deals with:
(a) The right of players to move to another club at the end of a contract without a transfer fee being paid.
(b) The mandatory inclusion of indigenous players in domestic leagues.
(c) The restriction of foreign players to a maximum of three per club in Europe.
(d) The cap on maximum wages an athlete can earn annually.
7. Regarding the “UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport,” consider the following:
It is the first time that governments have agreed to apply the force of international law to anti-doping.
While WADA governs athletes through the Code, UNESCO governs States (Governments) through this Convention.
India is a signatory to this convention.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
8. The term “Sportswashing” was frequently used in the context of the 2025-26 global sports calendar. It is best described as:
(a) The process of cleaning sports equipment using biodegradable chemicals.
(b) A practice where a nation or corporation uses sports to improve its reputation, often to divert attention from a poor human rights record.
(c) The systematic removal of corruption from sports federations by independent auditors.
(d) The use of high-pressure water systems to maintain turf in arid regions.
9. Consider the following pairs of Sports Governing Bodies and their Headquarters:
FIFA: Zurich, Switzerland
World Athletics: Monaco
International Cricket Council (ICC): London, UK
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
10. The “Brighton plus Helsinki Declaration,” which gained renewed signatures from Asian nations in late 2025, is a treaty primarily aimed at:
(a) Banning the use of AI in player scouting.
(b) Developing a set of principles to lead to more involvement of women in all levels of sport.
(c) Protecting the rights of child athletes in professional academies.
(d) Establishing a unified world ranking for Para-sports.
Explanatory Answers: Sports Current Affairs MCQs UPSC 2026 (Section 1)
(b) Explanation: Statement 1 is false; WADA is a foundation, not a UN agency. Statement 2 is correct (WADA criteria). Statement 3 is false; the 2026 updates actually focus on simplifying mental health TUEs to encourage athlete well-being.
(d) Explanation: All statements are correct. CAS is the final authority, and the Swiss Federal Tribunal rarely intervenes except on jurisdiction or procedural fairness.
(c) Explanation: Neutral athletes (often seen in the 2024-2025 period) cannot display national flags or anthems, and their medals do not count toward their country’s total.
(a) Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are true. Statement 3 is false; while India follows the principles and has debated signing it, it has not yet become a permanent signatory as of early 2026.
(b) Explanation: Statement 2 is a “twisted” trap; the mandate is currently “Climate Positive” for 2030, but for 2026, the focus remains on achieving “Carbon Neutrality” and sustainability targets. Statements 1 and 3 are factual.
(a) Explanation: This is a landmark legal case in sports law regarding the free movement of workers.
(d) Explanation: All statements are correct. UNESCO provides the legal framework for governments to fund WADA and enforce anti-doping laws.
(b) Explanation: A common sociopolitical term in UPSC-style “Terms in News” questions.
(b) Explanation: The ICC is headquartered in Dubai, UAE, not London.
(b) Explanation: This is the international benchmark for gender equity in sports.
This section dives into the administrative and legal side of Indian sports, focusing on the evolution of the National Sports Code, the Draft Sports Bill (2024-25), and the institutional mechanisms that govern Indian athletes.
This second section focuses on major global events scheduled or concluded between July 2025 and May 2026, with a specific eye on hosting shifts, environmental challenges, and diplomatic nuances.
Section 2: Major Multi-Sport Events (2025–26)
11. With reference to the 2026 Commonwealth Games (CWG), which have faced significant hosting shifts, consider the following statements:
Following the withdrawal of Victoria (Australia), the 2026 Games were officially moved to Glasgow, Scotland.
The 2026 edition features a “compact model,” reducing the number of sports to just 10 to ensure financial sustainability.
For the first time in CWG history, Para-sports have been separated into a standalone event held a month after the main Games.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
12. The 2026 Winter Olympic Games (Milano Cortina) are being hailed as the first “Data-Driven” and “Geographically Spread” Winter Games. Consider the following:
The Games are unique because they are hosted by two distinct cities and spread across a vast region of Northern Italy.
The “Climate Positive” mandate of the IOC applies strictly to these 2026 Games, requiring them to remove more carbon than they emit.
Due to rising temperatures, the 2026 Games will rely on over 3 million cubic yards of artificial snow for outdoor events.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
13. In the context of the 20th Asian Games (Aichi-Nagoya 2026), consider the following statements:
It marks the return of the Asian Games to its traditional four-year cycle after the delay of the 2022 edition.
The 2026 Games will see the debut of “E-sports” and “Breaking” as full medal sports.
India has officially proposed the inclusion of “Yoga” as a demonstration sport for this edition.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
14. With reference to “Dakar 2026,” which is frequently in the news as a milestone for the Olympic movement, consider the following:
It is the first-ever Olympic-level event to be held on the African continent.
It is a Youth Olympic Games (YOG) edition, specifically targeting athletes aged 15–18.
The event was originally scheduled for 2022 but was postponed to 2026 due to the global pandemic.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
15. The “World Games 2025,” held in Chengdu, China, in August 2025, primarily features:
(a) Sports that are currently not on the core Olympic program.
(b) Only indigenous and traditional folk sports from Asia and Africa.
(c) Winter sports events for countries that do not have snow.
(d) A competition exclusively for University-level athletes (Universiade).
16. In the context of the “Targeted Dialogue” host selection process used for the 2026 and future Games, which body is responsible for recommending a “Preferred Host” to the IOC Executive Board?
(a) The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)
(b) The Future Host Commission
(c) The Association of National Olympic Committees (ANOC)
(d) The United Nations Office on Sport for Development and Peace
17. Regarding the 2025 World Athletics Championships held in Tokyo, consider the following:
It was the first World Athletics Championship to introduce a “repechage” round for all individual track events from 200m to 1500m.
Tokyo became the first city to host the World Athletics Championships three times.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. The 2026 FIFA World Cup, though still ahead, saw major logistical milestones in late 2025. Which of the following is a unique feature of this tournament?
(a) It is the first World Cup to be hosted by three nations (USA, Canada, Mexico).
(b) The number of participating teams has been increased from 32 to 48.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) Neither (a) nor (b).
19. Which multi-sport event, scheduled for late 2025, focuses specifically on “Coastal and Water Sports” and is seen as a major boost for the “Blue Economy”?
(a) The World Aquatics Championships
(b) The Asian Beach Games
(c) The Mediterranean Games
(d) The Arctic Race
20. The “Olympic Esports Games,” which saw its inaugural edition in late 2025/early 2026, is governed by:
(a) A partnership between the IOC and the International Esports Federation (IESF).
(b) The IOC directly, as a separate entity from the traditional Olympic Games.
(c) National governments of the host nations.
(d) The Global Esports Federation (GEF) under UNESCO’s supervision.
Explanatory Answers: Sports Current Affairs MCQs UPSC 2026 (Section2)
(a) Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is false; Para-sports in the CWG are fully integrated into the main schedule, not held separately—this is a key distinguishing feature from the Olympics.
(b) Explanation: Statement 2 is a trap. The IOC mandate is for all Games to be climate positive from 2030 onwards. Milano Cortina 2026 aims for carbon neutrality but is not yet under the mandatory “Positive” requirement.
(a) Explanation: Statement 3 is false. While India has advocated for Yoga, it has not been confirmed as a demonstration sport for Nagoya 2026 as of current schedules.
(d) Explanation: Dakar 2026 is a historic first for Africa. It is the 4th Summer YOG and was indeed postponed from 2022.
(a) Explanation: The World Games (TWG) is for “Non-Olympic” sports like Korfball, Squash (until 2028), and Powerlifting.
(b) Explanation: The Future Host Commission is the new mechanism replacing the old bidding system to prevent corruption and high costs.
(a) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct (a recent rule change). Statement 2 is false; Tokyo hosted in 1991 and 2025 (2 times). Oregon and Budapest were other recent hosts.
(c) Explanation: Both are major structural changes for the 2026 edition.
(b) Explanation: The Asian Beach Games emphasize the link between sports, tourism, and the marine economy.
(b) Explanation: The IOC created a specific “Olympic Esports Games” structure to maintain control over the “Olympic” brand, distinct from other E-sports federations.
Section 3: Indian Sports Policy & Legislation
21. With reference to the “National Sports Development Code of India” (Sports Code), which has been a subject of judicial scrutiny in 2025, consider the following statements:
It is a set of executive instructions issued by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, not a statutory law passed by Parliament.
The Code mandates that at least 25% of the voting rights in National Sports Federations (NSFs) must be held by “Prominent Sportspersons.”
It prohibits a person from being an office-bearer in more than one NSF simultaneously.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
22. In late 2025, the Government of India proposed the “Draft National Sports Governance Bill.” What is the primary objective of this proposed legislation?
(a) To transfer “Sports” from the State List to the Union List in the Seventh Schedule.
(b) To establish a statutory “Sports Regulatory Authority of India” to oversee all NSFs.
(c) To make physical education a fundamental right under Article 21A.
(d) To privatize the Sports Authority of India (SAI) and its regional centers.
23. Consider the following statements regarding the “Target Olympic Podium Scheme” (TOPS) as of 2026:
It is a flagship program of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports to provide assistance to India’s top athletes.
The Mission Olympic Cell (MOC) is the body responsible for selecting athletes for the TOPS scheme.
The “Development Group” under TOPS focuses specifically on athletes preparing for the 2028 and 2032 Olympics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
24. With reference to the “Khelo India” program, consider the following statements:
It is a Central Sector Scheme where 100% of the funding is provided by the Union Government.
The “Khelo India University Games” were discontinued in 2025 to focus exclusively on school-level talent.
It includes a component for “Promotion of sports among persons with disabilities.”
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
25. The “National Anti-Doping Agency” (NADA) in India operates under which of the following?
(a) An Act of Parliament (The National Anti-Doping Act, 2022).
(b) An executive order of the Ministry of Law and Justice.
(c) A direct mandate from the Supreme Court of India.
(d) It is a private body registered under the Societies Registration Act.
26. In the context of sports administration, the “Cooling-off Period” often mentioned in news refers to:
(a) The mandatory rest period an athlete must take between two international tournaments.
(b) The time gap required before an office bearer can seek re-election after completing a maximum tenure.
(c) The duration a player must wait after retiring before they can become a coach.
(d) The window during which a player cannot switch their domestic state team.
27. Regarding the “National Sports Awards” (Khel Ratna, Arjuna, etc.), which of the following statements is correct regarding the 2025-26 cycle?
(a) The selection committee is headed by the Union Minister of Sports.
(b) The “Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna” is awarded for spectacular performance over a period of four years.
(c) Self-nomination by athletes is strictly prohibited.
(d) The Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy is awarded to the best-performing National Sports Federation.
28. The “Panchayat Yuva Krida aur Khel Abhiyan” (PYKKA) was restructured and subsumed into which of the following schemes?
(a) Fit India Movement
(b) Khelo India
(c) TOPS
(d) Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan
29. Consider the following regarding the “Sports Authority of India” (SAI):
It was established in 1984 to carry forward the legacy of the IXth Asian Games held in New Delhi.
It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
It manages the “National Sports Talent Contest” (NSTC) scheme.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
30. In 2025, India’s “Sports Diplomacy” was highlighted through the “Common Wealth of Cricket” initiative. This primarily involves:
(a) Training cricketers from non-playing Commonwealth nations in Indian academies.
(b) Using cricket as a tool to resolve maritime disputes in the Indian Ocean.
(c) Mandatory cricket matches between SAARC nations every year.
(d) Granting Indian citizenship to top-tier overseas cricketers.
Explanatory Answers: Sports Current Affairs MCQs UPSC 2026(Section 3)
(d) Explanation: All three are core pillars of the Sports Code. The 25% rule for sportspersons (Statement 2) is a frequent point of tension between the Ministry and NSFs.
(b) Explanation: The 2024-25 Draft Bill seeks to replace the executive Sports Code with a statutory law and create a dedicated Regulatory Authority to minimize judicial interference.
(d) Explanation: All statements are correct. The MOC is the decision-making body that provides customized support to athletes.
(a) Explanation: Statement 2 is false. The University Games are a thriving part of the Khelo India vertical, alongside School and Winter Games.
(a) Explanation: NADA became a statutory body after the passage of the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022, giving it more power to conduct searches and seizures.
(b) Explanation: As per the Sports Code and Lodha Committee recommendations (for cricket), a “cooling-off” period prevents the concentration of power in few hands.
(b) Explanation: The Khel Ratna considers a 4-year window. Statement (a) is wrong (usually headed by a retired Judge); (c) is wrong (self-nomination is allowed); (d) is wrong (MAKA is for Universities).
(b) Explanation: Khelo India is an “umbrella” scheme that integrated previous schemes like PYKKA and the Urban Sports Infrastructure Scheme.
(d) Explanation: SAI is the apex national sports body in India, born out of the 1982 Asian Games legacy.
(a) Explanation: India often uses its cricket infrastructure (like the academy in Greater Noida for Afghanistan or programs for African nations) as a soft power tool.
Section 4: Technology & Ethics in Sports Current Affairs MCQs UPSC 2026
31. With reference to “Gene Doping,” a concern highlighted in the 2025 WADA Symposium, consider the following statements:
It involves the non-therapeutic use of cells, genes, or genetic elements to enhance athletic performance.
Unlike traditional doping, gene doping is currently undetectable by blood or urine tests.
The 2026 Prohibited List includes “gene editing” technologies like CRISPR-Cas9 under this category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
32. The term “Technological Fraud,” specifically regarding “Mechanical Doping” in cycling events of late 2025, involves:
(a) The use of aerodynamic suits that mimic shark skin to reduce drag.
(b) The concealment of small electric motors or magnets within the bicycle frame or wheels.
(c) Hacking into an opponent’s biometric data to predict their fatigue levels.
(d) Using AI-generated simulations to replace real-world training.
33. In the 2025-26 football season, “Semi-Automated Offside Technology” (SAOT) was widely implemented. How does this technology differ from traditional Video Assistant Referee (VAR) systems?
(a) SAOT makes the final decision automatically without human intervention.
(b) SAOT uses limb-tracking cameras and a sensor in the ball to provide a 3D visualization to officials in seconds.
(c) SAOT is only used in domestic leagues, while VAR is used for international matches.
(d) SAOT relies on GPS trackers worn by players rather than optical cameras.
34. Regarding the medical condition “CTE” (Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy), which led to new “Concussion Protocols” in contact sports in 2025, consider the following:
It is a progressive degenerative disease of the brain found in athletes with a history of repetitive head impacts.
It can be definitively diagnosed in living athletes through advanced 2026 MRI protocols.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
35. With reference to “Therapeutic Use Exemptions” (TUE), which is a critical part of the WADA framework, consider the following:
A TUE allows an athlete to use a prohibited substance if they have a documented medical condition.
An athlete can apply for a TUE retroactively in emergency situations.
The decision to grant a TUE is made by the coach of the respective National Team.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
36. The “Smart Ball” technology introduced in the 2026 ICC T20 World Cup primarily aids in:
(a) Measuring the exact revolutions per minute (RPM) of a spin delivery.
(b) Detecting “micro-touches” for caught-behind and stumping decisions (replacing Snickometer).
(c) Determining the exact point of impact for LBW decisions in real-time.
(d) Automatically signaling a “No-Ball” if the ball bounces more than twice.
37. In sports science, the “Biological Passport” (ABP) is used to detect doping by:
(a) Checking the athlete’s passport for travel to high-risk doping countries.
(b) Monitoring an athlete’s biological variables over time to detect indirect markers of doping.
(c) Storing a DNA sample of the athlete to ensure no “body doubles” are used for tests.
(d) Mapping the genetic ancestry of an athlete to determine natural speed.
38. The “Carbon Plate Technology” in marathon running shoes, which faced regulatory updates in late 2025, is restricted by World Athletics primarily to:
(a) Ensure that the shoes do not contain electronic sensors.
(b) Limit the “energy return” to prevent an unfair mechanical advantage.
(c) Ensure the sole thickness (stack height) does not exceed a specific limit (e.g., 40mm).
(d) Both (b) and (c).
39. Regarding the “Ethics Commission” of the International Olympic Committee (IOC), consider the following:
It is responsible for investigating violations of the Olympic Charter and the Code of Ethics.
Its members are appointed by the United Nations General Assembly to ensure total independence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. What is “Air-Badminton,” which saw its first World Championship cycle in 2025-26?
(a) A virtual reality version of badminton played in e-sports.
(b) An outdoor version of the sport using a unique shuttlecock (AirShuttle) designed to be wind-resistant.
(c) A version of badminton played in zero-gravity environments.
(d) A training method involving high-altitude oxygen deprivation.
Explanatory Answers: Sports Current Affairs MCQs UPSC 2026 (Section4)
(b) Explanation: Statement 2 is false. While difficult, scientists have developed “indirect” testing methods and “direct” detection of specific viral vectors used in gene editing. Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
(b) Explanation: This has been a major scandal in cycling (Tour de France/Giro d’Italia), where hidden tech provides an illegal power boost.
(b) Explanation: SAOT is faster and more accurate than VAR because it tracks 29 data points on each player. Statement (a) is wrong because the referee still makes the final call.
(a) Explanation: Statement 2 is a common misconception. Currently, CTE can only be definitively diagnosed post-mortem (after death) through brain tissue analysis, although 2026 research is nearing “likely” biomarkers in living patients.
(a) Explanation: Statement 3 is false. TUEs are granted by an independent committee of physicians (TUE Committee), not coaches or team officials.
(b) Explanation: High-tech sensors (like the Kookaburra SmartBall) provide instantaneous feedback on contact, used to assist the third umpire.
(b) Explanation: Instead of looking for a drug, the ABP looks for the effects of a drug (e.g., unusual spikes in red blood cells over a year).
(d) Explanation: World Athletics sets strict limits on foam thickness and the number of plates to balance innovation with human effort.
(a) Explanation: Statement 2 is false. The members are elected by the IOC Session, though they include independent members who are not IOC members.
(b) Explanation: Launched by the BWF, this is a major initiative to take badminton from indoor courts to parks and beaches globally.
This section explores the governance, regulatory shifts, and major tournament structures of cricket, which has seen transformative changes in the 2025–2026 period as it prepares for Olympic inclusion.
Section 5: Cricket Global Governance & Formats
41. With reference to the ICC Playing Conditions updated in June 2025 and trialed through early 2026, consider the following statements:
In One Day Internationals (ODIs), the rule of using two new balls has been modified to assist reverse swing by returning to a single ball for the final 16 overs.
A new “Stop Clock” rule has been permanently introduced in Test matches to regulate the time taken between overs, with a five-run penalty for a third default.
The “Wide Ball” rule now uses the position of the batter’s legs at the point of delivery as the reference point, even if the batter moves subsequently.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
42. Regarding the ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2026, which concluded in March 2026, consider the following:
The tournament was co-hosted by India and Sri Lanka, marking the first time Sri Lanka hosted the event since 2012.
The 2026 edition saw the total number of participating teams increase to 24 to promote global inclusivity.
India emerged as the champions, defeating New Zealand in the final held in Ahmedabad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
43. The “ICC World Test Championship (WTC) 2025–2027” cycle introduced specific changes to its points system. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Points are now awarded based on the margin of victory (e.g., innings win gives bonus points).
(b) Teams are ranked primarily by the total number of points won, rather than the percentage of points.
(c) For every over a team is short of the target rate, one championship point is deducted.
(d) A drawn match now awards 6 points to each team, the same as a tie.
44. With reference to the inclusion of Cricket in the 2028 Los Angeles Olympics (LA28), consider the following statements:
Cricket will return to the Olympics after a gap of 128 years, having last been played in 1900.
The IOC has confirmed that both Men’s and Women’s tournaments will be played in the T20 format.
The matches will be held at a temporary venue in Pomona, California, rather than the Eastern US, to keep athletes in the Olympic Village.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
45. Consider the following regarding the “ICC Concussion Substitute” policy revised in late 2025:
Teams are now required to nominate five specific substitutes (batter, seamer, spinner, etc.) before the match to ensure a “like-for-like” replacement.
A player diagnosed with a concussion must observe a mandatory stand-down period of at least seven days before returning to play.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
46. In the context of the “DRS” (Decision Review System) updates for 2026, the “Wicket Zone” is now defined as:
(a) The area between the two outer stumps only.
(b) The entire area including the stumps and the full height of the bails.
(c) The actual physical outline of the stumps and bails.
(d) Only the area where the ball would physically strike the middle stump.
47. Regarding the growth of Women’s Cricket in 2025–26, the “ICC Women’s T20I Challenge Trophy” is a new initiative aimed at:
(a) Providing a global platform for Associate member nations to compete regularly.
(b) Replacing the existing Women’s T20 World Cup.
(c) A tournament where retired legends play alongside active U-19 players.
(d) An indoor-only cricket tournament to promote the sport in cold climates.
48. The term “Pink Ball Test” or “Day-Night Test” involves specific regulatory differences from a standard Red Ball Test. Which of the following is true?
(a) The follow-on margin is reduced to 150 runs.
(b) The interval between the second and third sessions is called “Supper” instead of “Tea.”
(c) A new ball must be taken every 40 overs instead of 80 to maintain visibility.
(d) Teams are allowed one extra DRS review per innings.
49. With reference to the ICC’s “Full Member” status, which allows a nation to play Test cricket, which of the following is the most recent criteria added in the 2025 governance review?
(a) Mandatory participation in at least 50% of all ICC Women’s global events.
(b) Requirement of having at least three stadiums with a capacity of 30,000+.
(c) Compulsory implementation of an anti-corruption unit at the domestic level.
(d) A minimum of 10% of total revenue must be generated through domestic ticket sales.
50. The “Impact Player” rule, which is a significant part of the Indian Premier League (IPL) in 2026, is currently:
(a) Adopted by the ICC for all T20 International matches.
(b) Used only in domestic T20 leagues like the IPL and Big Bash.
(c) Prohibited by the ICC for any recognized T20 format.
(d) Applied only in the first 10 overs of an international T20 match.
Explanatory Answers: Sports Current Affairs MCQs UPSC 2026(Section 5)
(d) Explanation: All statements reflect the June 2025 updates. The ODI ball change (using 1 ball for last 16 overs) was a major move to revive reverse swing.
(b) Explanation: Statement 2 is false; the tournament featured 20 teams, not 24. India defeated New Zealand in the final (March 2026) to claim their 3rd title.
(c) Explanation: The WTC uses a strict penalty where 1 point is docked for each over short. Statement (d) is wrong (Tie = 6 pts, Draw = 4 pts).
(d) Explanation: All statements are correct. The decision to stay in LA (Pomona) was a logistical choice despite the time-zone challenge for Asian viewers.
(c) Explanation: These safety-first measures were introduced to prevent teams from using concussion substitutes as tactical “super-subs.”
(c) Explanation: The “Wicket Zone” was clarified to be the physical outline of the stumps and bails to make LBW tracking more precise.
(a) Explanation: This trophy (seen in recent May 2026 data for teams like Rwanda and Vanuatu) is the ICC’s pathway for Associate growth.
(b) Explanation: In D/N Tests, the long break is taken between the 2nd and 3rd sessions (Supper), while the shorter break (Tea) is between the 1st and 2nd.
(a) Explanation: The ICC has linked Full Membership and funding more strictly to the development and participation of women’s teams.
(b) Explanation: The ICC Men’s Cricket Committee has specifically not adopted the “Impact Player” rule for international cricket as of May 2026, keeping it as a domestic league feature.
Rohit Sharma: ICC T20 World Cup 2026 Ambassador
This video provides context on the 2026 T20 World Cup’s atmosphere and the role of veteran leaders in the sport’s global expansion.
This section focuses on Indian Achievements and the rise of India as a sporting powerhouse between July 2025 and May 2026, highlighting record-breaking performances and strategic shifts.
Section 6: Indian Achievements (July 2025 – May 2026)
51. In late 2025, an Indian Grandmaster became the youngest ever to surpass a FIDE rating of 2800. In the context of Chess, what does an “ELO Rating” signify?
(a) The total number of international tournaments a player has participated in.
(b) A mathematical method for calculating the relative skill levels of players in zero-sum games.
(c) The speed at which a player makes a move during a “Blitz” game.
(d) The number of “norms” a player has achieved toward the Grandmaster title.
52. With reference to the “Vision 2036” document submitted by the Indian Government to the IOC in late 2025, consider the following statements:
India has officially expressed interest in hosting the 2036 Summer Olympic and Paralympic Games.
The proposal suggests Ahmedabad as the primary host city, utilizing the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Sports Enclave.
Hosting the Olympics requires a change in the Indian Constitution to make “Sports” a Union subject.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
53. Consider the following statements regarding Neeraj Chopra’s performance in the 2025 Diamond League season:
He became the first Indian to win three consecutive Diamond League Final trophies.
The Diamond League is an annual series of elite track and field athletic competitions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
54. In early 2026, India’s Badminton stars excelled in the “BWF World Tour Finals.” Regarding the scoring system in Badminton, which of the following is correct?
(a) A match consists of the best of three games of 21 points each.
(b) If the score reaches 20-all, the side which gains a 1-point lead first wins the game.
(c) At 29-all, the side scoring the 30th point wins the game.
(d) Both (a) and (c).
55. India’s success in “Para-Sports” reached new heights in the 2025 Asian Para Games. Consider the following regarding Para-Athletics classifications:
The prefix ‘T’ stands for Track events and ‘F’ stands for Field events.
The number following the letter indicates the type and level of impairment (lower numbers generally indicating more severe impairment).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
56. In 2026, an Indian woman cricketer became the first to score five centuries in a single calendar year in ODIs. Who is she?
(a) Smriti Mandhana
(b) Harmanpreet Kaur
(c) Shafali Verma
(d) Jemimah Rodrigues
57. With reference to the “Thomas Cup” and “Uber Cup,” where Indian teams showed significant progress in 2026, which of the following is correct?
(a) Thomas Cup is for women; Uber Cup is for men.
(b) Both are biennial international badminton championships for men and women respectively.
(c) Both tournaments are played in a “Best of 7” format including mixed doubles.
(d) India won the Uber Cup for the first time in May 2026.
58. Regarding the “National Games of India” held in late 2025, consider the following:
The 38th edition of the National Games was hosted by the state of Uttarakhand.
The “Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy” is awarded to the team that wins the highest number of Gold medals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
59. In the 2025-26 period, India saw a surge in “Sports Tech” startups. The “A-LEAP” initiative recently launched by the government aims to:
(a) Provide airfare for all athletes traveling abroad.
(b) Accelerate startups that develop indigenous sports equipment and wearable technology.
(c) Leapfrog India into the top 5 of the FIFA world rankings.
(d) Provide mandatory life insurance to all retired Olympians.
60. India’s “Project 100” launched in early 2026 by the Ministry of Sports is designed to:
(a) Win exactly 100 medals in the 2026 Asian Games.
(b) Identify and train 100 high-potential athletes for the 2028 LA Olympics.
(c) Build 100 new world-class hockey turfs across North-East India.
(d) Ensure 100% literacy among active national-level athletes.
Explanatory Answers: Sports Current Affairs MCQs UPSC 2026 (Section6)
(b) Explanation: ELO is a rating system used in games like Chess to determine relative strength. Gukesh D and Arjun Erigaisi have been in the news for approaching/surpassing the 2800 mark in the 2025-26 cycle.
(a) Explanation: Statement 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is false; while moving Sports to the Concurrent List has been recommended by the 21st Law Commission, it is not a constitutional requirement to host the Games.
(b) Explanation: Statement 1 is false (it was his second, not third consecutive). Statement 2 is a correct definition of the Diamond League.
(d) Explanation: In Badminton, you need a 2-point lead after 20-all, but the cap is 30.
(c) Explanation: This is the standard classification system (e.g., T44, F57) used by the International Paralympic Committee.
(a) Explanation: Smriti Mandhana has been in record-breaking form in the 2025-26 season across various bilateral series.
(b) Explanation: Thomas Cup (Men) and Uber Cup (Women) are the premier team championships in badminton. India famously won the Thomas Cup in 2022 and reached the semi-finals in 2026.
(a) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is false; the trophy is awarded to the team with the highest number of total points/overall championship, not just gold medals.
(b) Explanation: Part of the “Make in India” in sports initiative to reduce dependence on imported gear.
(b) Explanation: A targeted elite athlete program focusing on the immediate next Olympic cycle.
This section addresses the complex intersection of sports with sociology, human rights, and global ethics, a favorite area for UPSC examiners to test your ability to link sports to broader global trends.
Section 7: Sports and Social Issues (Ethics, Gender & Inclusion)
61. The “Enhanced Games,” which gained significant global investment in late 2025, have faced severe criticism from the IOC. What is the fundamental concept of these games?
(a) A competition exclusively for athletes using prosthetic limbs and robotic enhancements.
(b) A sports event that explicitly permits the use of performance-enhancing drugs under medical supervision.
(c) A tournament where rules are modified to be “enhanced” for television audiences (e.g., larger goals).
(d) A games model where athletes must have a minimum PhD degree to compete.
62. With reference to the “Eligibility Regulations for Transgender Athletes” updated by several International Federations in 2025–26, consider the following:
World Athletics currently prohibits transgender women from competing in the female category at international competitions if they have transitioned after male puberty.
The IOC has a universal, mandatory policy that all member federations must follow regarding transgender participation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
63. The term “Human Rights Due Diligence” (HRDD) became a mandatory requirement in late 2025 for cities bidding for major sporting events. This primarily ensures:
(a) That athletes are paid a minimum wage equal to the host country’s average.
(b) That the construction of stadiums and infrastructure does not involve forced labor or displacement without compensation.
(c) That all spectators are granted free visas regardless of their country of origin.
(d) That the host nation provides 24/7 security to all international journalists.
64. In the context of “Safeguarding in Sports,” a framework heavily promoted by the Indian Government in 2026, the primary goal is:
(a) To protect the physical infrastructure of stadiums from terrorist threats.
(b) To ensure a safe environment for athletes, especially minors, free from harassment, abuse, and exploitation.
(c) To protect the intellectual property rights of sports broadcasters.
(d) To safeguard the financial investments of private sponsors in National Federations.
65. Consider the following statements regarding the “Paralympic Movement” and its socio-political impact:
The 2024–2025 period saw the “WeThe15” campaign, which aims to represent the 15% of the world’s population who have a disability.
Participation in the Paralympics is restricted only to athletes with physical and visual impairments, excluding those with intellectual disabilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
66. The “Refugee Olympic Team” (EOR), which will feature in the 2026 Winter and 2028 Summer Games, is managed by:
(a) The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) exclusively.
(b) The Olympic Refugee Foundation in collaboration with the IOC.
(c) The government of the country currently hosting the refugees.
(d) A coalition of NGOs called “Sports for All.”
67. In 2025, several European football clubs were penalized under “Sustainability and Social Responsibility” (SSR) criteria. These criteria include:
Reducing the carbon footprint of team travel (e.g., banning short-haul private jets).
Mandatory community engagement programs for local underprivileged youth.
Ensuring gender pay parity for the administrative staff of the club.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
68. The “Diplomatic Boycott” of sporting events, a concept discussed in international relations, implies:
(a) Athletes refuse to participate in the event.
(b) Spectators from a specific country are banned from attending.
(c) Government officials and heads of state do not attend the event, but athletes are allowed to compete.
(d) The host nation is stripped of its membership in the International Federation.
69. Regarding “Match-Fixing” and “Spot-Fixing,” consider the following:
Match-fixing involves influencing the final result of a game.
Spot-fixing involves influencing specific, small events within a game (like a no-ball or a yellow card) that may not change the final result.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
70. The “Sports for Climate Action Framework,” led by the UN, requires signatory sports organizations to:
(a) Achieve a 50% reduction in greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.
(b) Plant one tree for every ticket sold for an international match.
(c) Ban the use of plastic bottles in all stadiums by 2026.
(d) Hold all matches during daylight hours to save electricity.
Explanatory Answers: Sports Current Affairs MCQs UPSC 2026(Section 7)
(b) Explanation: The “Enhanced Games” is a highly controversial private venture (backed by Peter Thiel) that argues for “science-led” performance, effectively opposing the WADA code.
(a) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct (World Athletics 2023/25 ruling). Statement 2 is false; the IOC released a “Framework” but left the specific eligibility rules to each individual International Federation (IF).
(b) Explanation: Following the controversies of past World Cups, HRDD is now a cornerstone of “Bid Files” to prevent labor exploitation.
(b) Explanation: This is a critical administrative shift in India (and globally) following several high-profile athlete protests and legal cases.
(a) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is false; athletes with intellectual impairments have been eligible for certain Paralympic categories since 2012.
(b) Explanation: The IOC created this foundation to provide a pathway for athletes who have been displaced from their home countries.
(d) Explanation: Modern sports governance now incorporates Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) scores into club licensing.
(c) Explanation: This was seen during recent global events where nations sent athletes but no political representation as a sign of protest.
(c) Explanation: Both are forms of corruption, but spot-fixing is often harder to detect because it doesn’t always affect the outcome.
(a) Explanation: This is the core pledge of the UNFCCC-led framework which most major sports bodies (including the IOC and FIFA) have signed.
This section covers the commercial evolution, technical regulations, and major tour developments in global individual sports. These areas often feature in UPSC Prelims under “Terms in News” or “International Agreements.”
Section 8: Global Tours Analysis: Sports Current Affairs MCQs UPSC 2026
71. With reference to the “Strategic Partnership” between the ATP (Men’s) and WTA (Women’s) tennis tours finalized in late 2025, consider the following statements:
The partnership aims to merge the commercial, media, and data rights of both tours into a single entity.
It introduces a mandatory “Equal Prize Money” rule for all 250 and 500-level tournaments starting in 2026.
The partnership was largely driven by the need to create a unified front against potential investment from private equity and sovereign wealth funds.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
72. Regarding Formula 1 (F1) and the 2026 Technical Regulations, which of the following is a major change?
(a) The complete removal of the “MGU-H” (Motor Generator Unit – Heat) to simplify engine design.
(b) A shift to 100% sustainable fuels for all competing cars.
(c) The introduction of “Active Aerodynamics” to reduce drag on straights and increase downforce in corners.
(d) All of the above.
73. In the context of Tennis, the term “Golden Slam” is used to describe an athlete who wins:
(a) All four Grand Slams in a single calendar year.
(b) All four Grand Slams plus an Olympic Gold medal in a single calendar year.
(c) All four Grand Slams plus the Year-End ATP/WTA Finals.
(d) Career wins in all four Grand Slams across different years.
74. The “PIF-PGA Tour-DP World Tour” framework agreement, which reached a milestone in early 2026, primarily concerns:
(a) The creation of a global golf league to replace the Olympic golf event.
(b) The unification of professional golf following the rift caused by the LIV Golf series.
(c) A mandatory retirement age for professional golfers.
(d) The standardization of golf ball aerodynamics to limit hitting distances.
75. Consider the following pairs of Tennis Grand Slams and their Court Surfaces:
Australian Open: Hard Court (Plexicushion)
French Open: Clay Court (En-tout-cas)
Wimbledon: Grass Court
US Open: Hard Court (DecoTurf)
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
76. In Formula 1, the “Concorde Agreement” is:
(a) A technical manual detailing the dimensions of the car’s front wing.
(b) A commercial contract that binds the teams, the FIA, and the F1 Group regarding prize money and TV rights.
(c) A treaty signed between host nations to ensure visa-free travel for F1 crews.
(d) The safety protocol followed during a “Red Flag” situation.
77. The “Tennis Anti-Corruption Program” (TACP) recently updated its rules in 2026 regarding “Courtsiding.” This term refers to:
(a) Fans sitting in the front row distracting players.
(b) The practice of transmitting live match data from the court to bettors to take advantage of the delay in official broadcast.
(c) Coaches providing signals to players from the sidelines during a match.
(d) Players deliberately losing a set to increase their odds in the next match.
78. With reference to the “Model Local Rule” (MLR) on Golf Ball Rollback (effective from 2026 for pros), the objective is:
(a) To make golf balls more colorful for better television visibility.
(b) To reduce the distance the ball travels to ensure historical golf courses do not become obsolete.
(c) To make the ball heavier so it is less affected by wind.
(d) To embed microchips in balls for better shot tracking.
79. The “Laver Cup,” which saw a highly publicized edition in late 2025, is a tennis tournament that features:
(a) An individual knockout format for U-21 players only.
(b) A team competition between “Team Europe” and “Team World.”
(c) A mixed-doubles-only tournament played on wood courts.
(d) A competition where players must use wooden rackets from the 1970s.
80. In F1, the “Budget Cap” or “Financial Regulations” introduced to ensure parity, excludes which of the following expenses?
Driver salaries.
Marketing and hospitality costs.
Salaries of the three highest-paid employees (excluding drivers).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Explanatory Answers: Sports Current Affairs MCQs UPSC 2026 (Section8)
(c) Explanation: Statement 2 is false. While the partnership targets pay parity, it is being phased in over several years (completion by 2033), and is not a “mandatory 2026” rule for lower-level events. Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
(d) Explanation: The 2026 F1 regulations are the most radical in a decade, focusing on electrification (dropping MGU-H), sustainability, and “nimble” car design.
(b) Explanation: Steffi Graf (1988) is the only person to have achieved this.
(b) Explanation: This is the major geopolitical and commercial story in sports, involving the Saudi Public Investment Fund (PIF) and the established tours.
(d) Explanation: All are correctly matched. Note that “En-tout-cas” is a specific type of crushed brick used for clay courts.
(b) Explanation: Without this agreement, F1 cannot function commercially. It ensures all teams get a fair share of the “F1 Pie.”
(b) Explanation: Courtsiding is a major threat to the integrity of sports betting markets due to the 5–10 second lag in digital broadcasts.
(b) Explanation: Modern technology has made players hit so far that traditional courses (like St. Andrews) are becoming too “short” and defenseless.
(b) Explanation: Created by Roger Federer’s management group, it is now an official part of the ATP calendar.
(d) Explanation: The Budget Cap (approx. $135 million) covers car development and racing, but allows big teams to spend freely on star drivers and top-tier management.
This section covers the prestigious recognition of athletic excellence and general sporting trivia that often appears in the “Miscellaneous” or “Awards and Honours” segments of the UPSC Prelims.
Section 9: Miscellaneous & Awards
81. The “Laureus World Sports Awards” are often called the “Oscars of Sport.” Regarding the 2026 Awards, consider the following statements:
The nominees are selected by a panel of the world’s leading sports media, but the winners are voted for by the members of the Laureus World Sports Academy.
An Indian athlete won the “Sportsperson of the Year” award for the first time in 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
82. With reference to the “National Sports Day” in India, consider the following statements:
It is celebrated on August 29th every year to commemorate the birth anniversary of Major Dhyan Chand.
The theme for National Sports Day 2025 was “Sports as an Enabler for an Inclusive and Fit India.”
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. In the 2025-26 cycle, the “Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award” was updated. This award is equivalent to which of the following in the field of adventure sports?
(a) Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna
(b) Arjuna Award
(c) Dronacharya Award
(d) Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar
84. The “Mace,” which was in the news in early 2026, is a trophy associated with:
(a) The winner of the ICC World Test Championship (WTC).
(b) The top-ranked team in the FIFA World Rankings.
(c) The winner of the Asian Games Kabaddi gold medal.
(d) The champion of the Pro Wrestling League.
85. Consider the following pairs of “Sports Terms” and the sports they are associated with:
Repechage: Wrestling & Athletics
Steeplechase: Swimming
Double Fault: Tennis
Albatross: Golf
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
86. Regarding the “Olympic Order,” the highest award of the Olympic Movement, which was bestowed upon an Indian sports administrator in late 2025/early 2026:
(a) It is awarded only to active athletes who win more than five gold medals.
(b) It is awarded to individuals who have rendered distinguished service to the Olympic cause.
(c) It can only be awarded to a person once in their lifetime.
(d) Both (b) and (c).
87. The “Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy” is a prestigious Indian sports award given to:
(a) The best performing National Sports Federation.
(b) The University showing the best all-round performance in sports.
(c) The coach who produces the highest number of international medalists.
(d) The corporate house that spends the most on Sports CSR.
88. In the 2025-26 period, the term “Super Grand Slam” was used in the context of Tennis to denote:
(a) Winning all four Grand Slams in a year plus the Year-End Finals.
(b) Winning all four Grand Slams, the Olympic Gold, and the Davis Cup in a career.
(c) Winning all four Grand Slams plus the Olympic Gold in a single calendar year.
(d) Winning all four Grand Slams plus the World Athletics Championship.
89. The “Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar” is awarded to which of the following entities?
Corporate entities (Private and Public sector).
NGOs and Sports Control Boards.
Individual athletes for their post-retirement social work.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
90. Which city was awarded the “World Capital of Sport” title for the year 2026?
(a) Paris, France
(b) Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
(c) Ahmedabad, India
(d) Naples, Italy
Explanatory Answers: Sports Current Affairs MCQs UPSC 2026 (Section9)
(a) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is false; while Indian athletes like Neeraj Chopra have been nominated for “Breakthrough of the Year,” no Indian has yet won the main “Sportsperson of the Year” (usually dominated by figures like Messi, Djokovic, or Federer).
(c) Explanation: Both are correct. The theme for 2025 focused on “Inclusivity,” aligning with India’s push for the 2026 Asian Para Games and Olympic bids.
(b) Explanation: The Tenzing Norgay Award is officially recognized as the “Arjuna Award equivalent” for adventure sports (Land, Water, and Air).
(a) Explanation: The ICC Test Mace is the iconic trophy held by the team at the top of the Test rankings or the winner of the WTC Final.
(b) Explanation: Steeplechase is an Athletics event (obstacle race), not swimming. All other pairs are correct.
(d) Explanation: Both (b) and (c) are correct. In late 2025, several Indian officials were recognized for their role in bringing the IOC Session to India and the 2036 bid.
(b) Explanation: MAKA is the oldest sports award in India (est. 1956), given to universities.
(a) Explanation: While “Golden Slam” includes the Olympics, a “Super Slam” is a rare term for adding the Year-End championship to the four majors.
(a) Explanation: Statement 3 is false. This award is specifically for organizations that play a role in sports promotion and development, not for the individual competitive achievements of athletes.
(b) Explanation: Riyadh has been aggressively securing this title for 2026 as part of its “Vision 2030” to become a global sports hub.
This final section bridges the gap between Geography and Sports, focusing on host locations, environmental factors affecting performance, and the strategic placement of sporting infrastructure.
Section 10: Geography of Sports (Venues, Maps & Environment)
91. Match the following major sporting venues of 2025–26 with their respective host cities/regions:
| Venue | Event/Context |
| I. Lusail International Circuit | A. 2026 Youth Olympic Games |
| II. Diamniadio Olympic Stadium | B. F1 Qatar Grand Prix |
| III. Cortina d’Ampezzo | C. 2025 World Aquatics Championships |
| IV. Singapore Sports Hub | D. 2026 Winter Olympics (Alpine Events) |
Select the correct code:
(a) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
(b) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
(c) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
(d) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
92. With reference to the 2026 Winter Olympics in Italy, consider the following geographic statements:
The Games are being hosted in the Dolomites, a mountain range that is part of the Northern Limestone Alps and a UNESCO World Heritage site.
Cortina d’Ampezzo, one of the host towns, previously hosted the Winter Olympics in 1956.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
93. The “Arctic Race,” a professional cycling event held in late 2025, takes place entirely above the Arctic Circle. In which country is this race primarily held?
(a) Canada
(b) Norway
(c) Denmark (Greenland)
(d) Iceland
94. In the context of “High-Altitude Training,” which became a major part of Indian athletes’ preparation in 2025-26, consider the following:
High-altitude training increases the production of Erythropoietin (EPO), which stimulates red blood cell production.
The Sports Authority of India (SAI) recently upgraded its High-Altitude Training Center (HATC) in Shilaroo, Himachal Pradesh.
Athletes benefit from high altitude because the concentration of oxygen in the air is higher than at sea level.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
95. Regarding the 2026 FIFA World Cup, which of the following cities is NOT a host venue?
(a) Vancouver, Canada
(b) Mexico City, Mexico
(c) Chicago, USA
(d) Miami, USA
96. The “Wet Bulb Temperature” was a term frequently cited during the 2025 Asian Beach Games. It is a critical metric in sports because:
(a) It measures the exact speed of wind over a water body.
(b) It represents the lowest temperature to which an object can be cooled by the evaporation of water, indicating the heat-stress limit for athletes.
(c) It determines the salinity of the water for swimming events.
(d) It is used to calculate the trajectory of a ball in humid conditions.
97. Consider the following statements regarding the “Great Rift Valley” and its dominance in long-distance running (revisited in 2025-26 athletic studies):
Most elite distance runners from Kenya and Ethiopia hail from the high-altitude plateaus bordering the Rift Valley.
The evolutionary advantage of these athletes is linked to a higher lung capacity and better “running economy” developed through living at high altitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
98. The “Strait of Hormuz” was mentioned in sports news in late 2025 due to a “Peace Marathon” initiative. Geographically, this strait connects:
(a) The Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden.
(b) The Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.
(c) The Mediterranean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean.
(d) The Andaman Sea and the South China Sea.
99. In 2025, India inaugurated its first “High-Performance Center for Surfing.” Where is this center located?
(a) Puri, Odisha
(b) Mahabalipuram, Tamil Nadu
(c) Panaji, Goa
(d) Vizag, Andhra Pradesh
100. “El Niño” and “La Niña” patterns were discussed in early 2026 regarding the schedule of the Australian Open. How does “La Niña” typically affect sports in Eastern Australia?
(a) It causes extreme drought and high bushfire risks, leading to match cancellations.
(b) It typically brings above-average rainfall and cooler daytime temperatures.
(c) It results in zero wind, making sailing competitions impossible.
(d) It has no measurable effect on the Australian climate.
Explanatory Answers: Sports Current Affairs MCQs
UPSC 2026(Section10)
(a) Explanation: I-B (Lusail is the F1 circuit), II-A (Diamniadio is the flagship stadium for Dakar 2026), III-D (Cortina is the Alpine hub for 2026), IV-C (Singapore hosted the 2025 Aquatics world event).
(c) Explanation: Both are correct. Cortina is a historic winter sports hub and the Dolomites are geographically significant.
(b) Explanation: The Arctic Race of Norway is the world’s northernmost bike race.
(a) Explanation: Statement 3 is a common trap. The concentration (percentage) of oxygen remains 21% at high altitude; it is the partial pressure of oxygen that is lower, making it harder to breathe. Statements 1 and 2 are scientifically correct.
(c) Explanation: Chicago withdrew from being a host city for the 2026 World Cup due to concerns over FIFA’s financial requirements. Vancouver, Mexico City, and Miami are all confirmed venues.
(b) Explanation: When the wet-bulb temperature reaches 35°C, the human body can no longer cool itself via sweat, making it the “survivability limit” for intense physical activity.
(c) Explanation: The “Kalanjin” tribe in Kenya, residing along the Rift Valley, is the most studied group in sports geography for this reason.
(b) Explanation: A classic map-based question. The Strait of Hormuz is a vital maritime chokepoint between Iran and Oman.
(b) Explanation: Mahabalipuram (Tamil Nadu) has emerged as the surfing capital of India, hosting international qualifying series in 2024 and 2025.
(b) Explanation: La Niña generally brings wetter conditions to Eastern Australia, which has historically caused delays in the Australian Open (though the main courts have retractable roofs).
Conclusion
The dynamic nature of sports governance makes it a vital component of the General Studies paper. Mastering Sports Current Affairs MCQs UPSC 2026 requires more than just memorization; it requires a deep understanding of the intersection between sports, technology, and social inclusion.
We hope these 100 questions provide you with the depth needed for the upcoming Prelims cycle. For more specialized content on UPSC topics—ranging from the Indus Valley Civilization to high-yield SEO strategies for aspirants—stay tuned to Knowledge Chronicles Plus. Keep practicing these Sports Current Affairs MCQs UPSC 2026, and you will be well-equipped to handle any curveballs the Commission throws your way.